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QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit. Asymmetric connection attempts in the aggregation layer are occurring on redundant FWSM modules. Which change might prevent this problem?
Exhibit:

A. Increase the number of links in theEtherChannel between Catalyst 6500-A and Catalyst 6500-
B. Add more FWSM modules to each Catalyst 6500 switch.
C. Reduce the oversubscription on the aggregation-to-access links.
D. Configure round-robin load balancing between the FWSM modules.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. Each letter (A-D) represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services?

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QUESTION 51
51 Which three statements are true about load-based Call Admission Control? (Choose three.)
A. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on the number of active clients associated to the access point
B. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on channel bandwidth capacity
C. uses the 802.11i specification
D. uses 802.11 action frames
E. requires a WMM-enabled client

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
52 What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?

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QUESTION 50
During the initial setup using CLI, which items need to be configured on the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Audio Blade?
A. Change video IP address menu
B. Change QoS menu
C. Configure default network port values
D. Associate video blade IP address

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two actions must be taken to place a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace system in maintenance mode for updates/patches? (Choose two.)
A. Use CLI commands to send an e-mail blast to all users. Page 11 of 15 Exam Name: Implementing MeetingPlace Solutions (IMPS) Exam Type: Cisco Exam Code: 642-274 Total Questions: 66
B. Use the scheduling interface from the Admin account and schedule a “Reserve all ports” meeting.

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QUESTION 11
Which three Server Pool Qualifications are used in the Cisco UCS manager? (Choose three.)
A. firmware
B. CPU
C. memory
D. adapter card

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which statement about a Service Profile is most accurate?
A. associated with a pool of blades
B. represents a group of physical blades
C. stores connectivity requirements

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is correct regarding full-state backups?

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QUESTION 31
Once data archiving has been enabled on the Cisco Security MARS appliance when does archiving initially occur?
A. Data is archived via NFS when a new incident occurs.
B. Whenever a new event is received, data will be archived via NFS.
C. Data is archived off the Cisco Security MARS via NFS when the Cisco Security MARS database fills up.
D. Data is archived nightly as a scheduled operation.
E. Data is archived when a configuration change occurs on the Cisco Security MARS.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Referring to the incident Vector Graph shown on the MARS GUI screen, which three of the following statements are correct? (Choose three.)

A. The port being attacked isport 80.

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QUESTION 29
How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 127
B. 255
C. 126
D. 256

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permit config command is listed and that will globally override all other rules
B. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)#level
C. All users belonging to the sangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered
D. All users belonging to the sangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed fist

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibits carefully. Host Certkiller 1
and Storage Certkiller A are in VSAN 10 and have been communication successfully. An administrator
creates and activates an IVR zoneset enabling Host Certkiller 1 and Storage Certkiller B to communicate.

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QUESTION 35
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment with geographically redundant central controllers, a new site is added with two new Admin Workstations as the only AWs at the site. What is the recommended configuration (AW type) for these two machines?
A. 1 – Primary Distributor AW, 1 – Secondary Distributor AW
B. 1 – Primary Distributor AW, 1 – Client AW
C. 1 – Secondary Distributor AW, 1 – Client AW
D. 2 – Client AWs
E. 2 – Secondary Distributor AWs
F. 1 – Primary Client AW, 1 – Secondary Client AW

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
In order to properly determine how many Cisco Voice Gateways are needed in a Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal deployment, the following information is provided by the customer: “We typically receive about 6000 calls a day, higher on Mondays. Each call lasts an average of four minutes once the caller is talking to an agent, and the average queue time is about five minutes. Also, there is about a one-minute prompt and collect activity when the call first arrives. All calls go to a single contact center, and the data center is located on-site. All the contact center agents are on Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP phones with Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Cisco Agent Desktop.”

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Virtual IP addresses (VIPs) are used by SLBs such as the Cisco Content Services Switch and Content Switching Module to represent content hosted on one or more servers under their control. The use of VIPs allows for traffic to be balanced among multiple origin servers, application servers, or transaction servers in a way that results in faster response times for users and less network congestion for the host A customer wants to use a single VIP. A second VIP will be used only if the first is overloaded or unavailable. What method of GSLB reply is best suited until that VIP isoverloaded or unavailable?

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments?
A. Lower latency
B. Simpler cabling
C. Longer distance support
D. More sophisticated traffic management
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies?
A. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger
B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger
C. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller
D. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
A very large blade-server deployment has high throughput requirements for both data and storage networks. Which accesslayer option would you recommend?

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which service module configuration is recommended to automatically detect and block traffic from malicious hosts?
A. IDSM that is deployed in IDS mode
B. FWSM that is coupled with the NAM
C. IDSM that is deployed in IPS mode
D. FWSM
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You work as the network administrator at Pass4sure.com. As far as you know in what entironment when a switched fabric server is required for InfiniBand support, coupled with Ethernet and Fibre Channel integration, which of following?
A. Cisco MDS 9000
B. Cisco MDS 7000
C. Cisco SFS 3000
D. Cisco SFS 7000
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. In an IBM mainframe configuration, an LPAR is expected to require 100 Mbps. How many physical Gigabit Ethernet mainframe interfaces are required to support thisconfiguration?